Indian Journal of Anaesthesia (IJA)
WEEKLY QUIZ #29
Quiz Question 1:
Which of the following is a limitation of fascial plane
blocks compared to thoracic epidurals?
A) Fascial plane blocks provide complete analgesia for all
types of surgery.
B) Thoracic epidurals are easier to insert and manage postoperatively.
C) Fascial plane blocks tend to provide incomplete analgesia
and inconsistent pain relief.
D) Fascial plane blocks have no risk of complications such
as haematoma or pneumothorax.
Correct Answer:
C) Fascial plane blocks tend to provide incomplete analgesia
and inconsistent pain relief.
Werry, Daniel; Uppal, Vishal. Beyond epidurals: Embracing
the realities of fascial plane blocks for truncal and chest wall analgesia.
Indian Journal of Anaesthesia 68(8):p 671-673, August 2024. | DOI:
10.4103/ija.ija_520_24
Quiz Question 2
Which of the following statements about the study on AKI
in obstetric ICU patients is true?
A) Serum NGAL is a reliable predictor of ICU mortality in
obstetric ICU patients.
B) The incidence of AKI in the study was lower than 50%.
C) Urinary NGAL showed a strong ability to predict the onset
of AKI.
D) AKI was found in over 70% of the obstetric ICU patients
during their stay.
Correct Answer: D) AKI was found in over 70% of the
obstetric ICU patients during their stay.
Pipil, Kartik; Tyagi, Asha; Tyagi, Surbhi; Nigam, Chanchal;
Das, Shukla1. Acute kidney injury in critically ill obstetric patients:
Incidence and role of neutrophil gelatinase-associated lipocalcin – A
prospective observational cohort study. Indian Journal of Anaesthesia 68(8):p
680-685, August 2024. | DOI: 10.4103/ija.ija_1029_23
Quiz Question 3
Which of the following is a primary outcome measured in
the study comparing ultrasound-guided pulsed radiofrequency ablation and local
anaesthetics with steroids for chronic shoulder pain?
A) Shoulder Pain and Disability Index (SPADI) at three
months
B) Numerical Rating Score (NRS) at three months
C) Passive Range of Motion (PROM) at twelve weeks
D) Incidence of side effects at the injection site
Correct Answer: B) Numerical Rating Score (NRS) at
three months
Gupta, Shiwam K.; Ghai, Babita; Makkar, Jeetinder K.;
Dhiman, Deepanshu1; Chouhan, Devendra K.2. Effectiveness of ultrasound-guided
pulsed radiofrequency ablation of suprascapular nerve versus local anaesthetics
with steroids in patients with chronic shoulder pain: A randomised controlled
trial. Indian Journal of Anaesthesia 68(8):p 731-734, August 2024. | DOI:
10.4103/ija.ija_939_23
Question 4:
Which of the following is the primary reason combined spinal–epidural (CSE)
anaesthesia was chosen for the emergency caesarean section in a primigravida
with a ruptured right sinus of Valsalva aneurysm?
Options:
A. It provides a faster onset of anaesthesia compared to
general anaesthesia.
B. It avoids the myocardial depression associated with general anaesthesia.
C. It minimizes the haemodynamic effects linked with a conventional dose of
spinal anaesthesia.
D. It allows for better control of preload and afterload during surgery.
Answer:
C. It minimizes the haemodynamic effects linked with a conventional dose of
spinal anaesthesia.
Bansal, Himanti; Cyriac, Jose; Singh, Ram; Ray, Sohini.
Efficacy of combined spinal–epidural anaesthesia in mitigating cardiovascular
stress during emergency caesarean section in a primigravida with ruptured right
sinus of Valsalva aneurysm – A case report. Indian Journal of Anaesthesia
68(8):p 735-736, August 2024. | DOI: 10.4103/ija.ija_308_24
Question 5: Which of the following is the main point
of contention regarding the triple injection peri-sartorius (TIPS) block
technique described by the authors?
A. The need for a
separate supra-sartorial injection to block the intermediate femoral cutaneous
nerve (IFCN).
B. The total volume of local anaesthetic used for the procedure.
C. The overall pain scores and opioid requirements reported in the study.
D. The potential for motor block affecting early mobilisation.
Answer:
A. The need for a separate supra-sartorial injection to block the intermediate
femoral cutaneous nerve (IFCN).
https://journals.lww.com/ijaweb/fulltext/2024/08000/tips_on__tips_block_.16.aspx
Jana, Shrabanti; Mistry, Tuhin; Sonawane, Kartik. Tips on
‘TIPS Block’. Indian Journal of Anaesthesia 68(8):p 740-741, August 2024. |
DOI: 10.4103/ija.ija_312_24
Question 6: What was the rationale provided by the
authors for adding a separate supra-sartorial injection to the TIPS block
technique?
Options: A. To enhance the motor blockade for better
postoperative analgesia.
B. To block the pain related to the surgical incision more effectively.
C. To ensure complete block of the sciatic nerve branches.
D. To minimize the volume of local anesthetic used.
Answer: B. To block the pain related to the surgical
incision more effectively.
Moustafa, Moustafa A.; Ahmed, Aly M. M.; Alabd, Ahmad S..
Essential tips on TIPS block – clarifications. Indian Journal of Anaesthesia
68(8):p 741-742, August 2024. | DOI: 10.4103/ija.ija_518_24
Question 7 : When did ketamine get FDA
approval after its discovery
A.
1970
B.
1965
C.
1960
D.
1983
Ans : A
Sharif, Sameer1,2,3; Prakash, Jay4; Rochwerg, Bram2,3.
Ketamine sedation in critically ill patients: Past, present and future. Indian
Journal of Anaesthesia 68(8):p 674-676, August 2024. | DOI:
10.4103/ija.ija_519_24
Q. 8 Which amongst the following is false
regarding the Airway Triage Application Method (ATAM)
A. The HELPET checklist is designed for active detection of
complexity factors
B. The PHASE checklist is designed to exclude complexity
factors and triage basic from advanced airways actively.
C. Triage with ATAM can be done within 60–90 s
D. Retrognathia is a major factor that has a low relevance
regarding patient safety
Ans : D
Link: : https://journals.lww.com/ijaweb/fulltext/2024/08000/airway_triage__goodbye,_difficult_airway_.3.aspx
Huitink, Johannes M. Airway Triage: Goodbye, difficult
airway!. Indian Journal of Anaesthesia 68(8):p 677-679, August 2024. | DOI:
10.4103/ija.ija_505_24
Q.9 Which amongst the
following is false regarding biomarkers in SEPSIS
A.
Procalcitonin a precursor of calcitonin is synthesised by thyroid cells and
secreted by various other cells including immune cells
B.
The biomarkers increase within 4 h from the start of the innate immunity
cascade, peaking within 6–8 h.
C.
Uncoupling protein 2 (UCP2) is present on the mitochondrial outer membrane
D.
Since all cells have mitochondria, they express UCP2 in sepsis.
Ans
: C
Sachidananda,
Roopa; Bhat, Vikram Kemmannu1; Kurjogi, Mahantesh2; Vanti, Gulam Nabi L.2;
Kayara, Madhura. Potential role of mitochondrial uncoupling protein 2 as a biomarker
in patients with sepsis and septic shock: A prospective observational study.
Indian Journal of Anaesthesia 68(8):p 718-724, August 2024. | DOI:
10.4103/ija.ija_1181_23
Q.10
What is the onset time and time to peak effect for Dexmeditomedine?
A.
5 mins and 15 mins
B.
5 mins and 10 mins
C.
15 mins and 30 mins
D.
2.5 mins and 15 mins
Ans
: A
Vishnoi,
Gunjan; Shah, Shagun B.; Chawla, Rajiv; Bhardwaj, Manoj; Patel, Anil; Arora,
Jenna. Comparison of propofol versus dexmedetomidine sedation for awake C-MAC®
D-Blade video laryngoscopic nasotracheal intubation in patients with difficult
airway: A randomised clinical study. Indian Journal of Anaesthesia 68(8):p
699-705, August 2024. | DOI: 10.4103/ija.ija_923_23
IJA Quiz Masters
Dr. Muralidhar Thondebhavi S,
Dr. Manshad Showkath,
Dr. Shilpa GK Bhat,
Dr. Bhavna Gupta,
Dr. Tushar Chokshi
Dr. Rakesh Garg
Editor-in-Chief
Indian Journal of Anaesthesia
